waterfront lot before the marriage

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Suze135

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Hello,

Can someone please comment on the following scenerio:

One party owns a waterfront lot prior to the marriage. No capital costs were ever put towards the lot, it just sat there, empty, during the entire duratiion of the marriage. Assume the value increased 100K during the marrage.

Fully realizing that the lot cannot be accounted for in the equalization table, can the "gain" (100K) on the lot be considered in the equalization table?

thx.
 
I am in no way shape or form a lawyer.

But my understanding is that the increase in value (gain) is an asset to be split. We had similar discussions here about antique cars and other appreciating assets.
 
I am in exactly the opposite situation.... STBX had a pre-marital property which took a huge capital loss over the course of the marriage. As part of equalization, she is claiming this loss, and looking for me to cover the difference as part of the NFP equalization. I had no access, visibility or anything whatsoever to do with this property.

Sooo... based on my experience, I would say the "gain" could certainly be included...
 
You might be able to list it as excluded property, especially if it were an inheritance. If you were to look at the Annotated Family Law reference book at the library, you could examine it under cottages/recreational properties under the Quantum Section. Your ex in court would be trying to claim a Constructive Trust against the property.
 
It was not an inheritance. My husband owned the lot before we were married. I included the "gain" inthe equalization table. Our Mediator told us last night that it cannot be included since no capital costs were done to the lot - it just sat there. So therefore it could not be included.

But I find this just so hard to believe......
 
So it wasn't an inheritance, he purchased it (outright?) prior to the marriage, there is no house or other dwelling on the property and it obviously was not used as a marital property by any means.

Correct?
 
I went through a Settlement Conference (didn't lead anywhere... but it was a real Judge) who didn't blink an eye at her claim for a significant capital LOSS in exactly the same situation. I mean this was a property I had NOTHING to do with... couldn't touch it if I wanted to... and she claimed it LOST money through the years and I was expected to cover that as part of the equalization.

The judge didn't see anything wrong with this at first glance.... I would certainly have protested but the SC went off the rails and we never got back to it.

I am certainly not a lawyer... this is just my experience for whatever it's worth.
 
@blinkandimgone -
So it wasn't an inheritance, he purchased it (outright?) prior to the marriage, there is no house or other dwelling on the property and it obviously was not used as a marital property by any means.

Yes. Correct.
 
But...you didn't contribute anything to it. Not when it was purchased, not by means of maintenance or upgrades during the marriage, why would (should) the gain be equalized?

Just curious.
 
@blinkandimgone - he didn't contribute anything to my pension either and why is that equalized?

Ya I get it, the pension was "gained" within the marriage.

What if I paid the taxes on the property?
 
If that were the case, i'd think that would be considered contributing to it.

I dunno, not sure what the laws are, there doesn't seem to be much logic to some of these things - although I'm sure it makes sense to whomever benefits the most from it ;)
 
Pre-marital asset – included in owner’s net worth calculation for value as of marriage date.

If still owned at end of marriage – included in owner’s net worth calculation for value as of separation date

Equalization divides the spouses’ combined net worth increase/decrease in two so that each leaves the marriage with the same net worth change over the course of the marriage.

For example, the increase in a pension over the course of a marriage is divided because it is assumed that the spouse earning the pension had the support of the other spouse in going to work every day, and the intention, had the couple stayed married, was that it would have been their mutual retirement income.

There are some exceptions, most notably occurring if debt was accrued and the overall net worth decreased, inheritances, and the handling of the matrimonial home.

Therefore, the increase or decrease in value of an asset over the course of the marriage is what is divided.

This is the default position of a court. But then the grey area of negotiation and persuasion comes in. If you can convince a judge that you had nothing to do with an asset that lost value, and it has clearly always been under the ownership and maintenance of your ex, then you might be able to argue that its depreciation should not be included. If an asset gained value and you assisted with the maintenance and it was considered family property that everybody used, then you could argue that its increase should be divided as this was partly due to your efforts.

To Suze135 – can you prove that you had anything to do with this waterfront lot? Did you get any use out of it, ie go there camping as a family? Were you participating in the savings process to someday build a family cottage on it? Was the plan to someday sell it and fund family purchases or retirements? What can you use to demonstrate that it was ever considered family property instead of just your ex’s property? Proof that you paid the property taxes yourself could be a key element.

To SomeGuy – that sucks! But the process isn’t finished yet? Do you have any documentation to prove her ‘mine all mine’ approach to the asset? If she was demonstrably unwilling to share it with you in any form, then perhaps you can successfully argue that the loss also should not be shared.

More accountantly inclined people may correct me, but overall, some things are black and white, and everything else depends on how much documentation you have and how persuasive your lawyer is. And if the value of the asset/loss is worth spending the money to fight over.
 
To SomeGuy – that sucks! But the process isn’t finished yet? Do you have any documentation to prove her ‘mine all mine’ approach to the asset? If she was demonstrably unwilling to share it with you in any form, then perhaps you can successfully argue that the loss also should not be shared.

No the process is not finished... she bailed on the SC so we're inching towards trial. I "believe" I'm ok shape to prove things as you describe, but this is just one more ridiculous thing I have to put time, money and effort into.... and hope it goes my way.
 
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