There are two types of disputes:
A) Things covered in your agreement
B) Things not covered in your agreement
She wants to change a type "B" thing, and you are trying to say that such a change gives you the right to change an "A" thing. That doesn't make sense. Her trying to change a "B" thing gives you the right to change "B" things.
If she was trying to change an "A" thing, she would need a material change of circumstances, and then you could go nuts changing lots of other "A" things.
I think you have put your finger on an issue where I am confusing two different concepts:
1. There were only two people in the room when the deal was negotiated. I know in my mind and in my heart what was discussed, and what we agreed on. My ex knows it too. Nothing can ever change that, regardless of what is in print, and regardless of what a judge thinks.
2. What the agreement says in writing.
I care mostly about #1 but a judge will care mostly about #2, therefore I need to care about #2 as well. As @arabian pointed out, my task will be to do my best to show intent, because this is the only way that a judge would give any weight to the alleged deal in #1.
I think hiding or lying about what was discussed is important for my ex because then the judge will only have #2 to rely on. This is where I get hung up. If my ex told the truth in court about what the negotiations and discussions were, how that led to what she wrote in the agreement, and then we let the judge decide based on the facts, then that’s fine. I can accept if the judge says I need to pay XYZ if the judge has all the elements in hand. But lying under oath to hide the true intent of the parties and try to mislead the judge to attempt to maximize financial gain, that is an entirely different game. Anyway, it is what it is, so it’s something I have to work with for now and I cannot change it.
So my confusion is that I am treating tax as an “A” thing because it was discussed and covered. However a judge will treat tax as a “B” thing because it’s not written down, unless I can show intent.
Back to how I can show what the intent was, I see two possible angles to exploit.
- The deal says that I will have a minimum imputed income, and that it corresponds to XXX of child support. The two numbers are joined at the hip and they are based on the Canadian CS formula. For illustration purposes, the agreement says my minimum imputed income will be $200k which corresponds to a minimum child support of $41k (the link between these two numbers being from the Canadian CS formula). At the time the separation agreement was signed, I had not lived in Canada for years (and I still do not live in Canada) and as I mentioned earlier in the thread, I have moved around quite a bit. There was no reason to believe I would live in Canada in the future or no knowledge of where I would end up. Then the agreement describes the adjustments to actual income, and tax is not listed. So clearly the agreement uses Canada’s implied tax rates to make the link between income and CS. I do not know if this is an argument that could have any merit, or whether I am simply re-hashing the same weak arguments as earlier in the thread, and that the conclusion remains that it is silent about tax rates, so therefore the link between $200k and $41k must be broken if my residence is any country other than Canada. If the agreement was only stating one number (the minimum imputed income OR the minimum child support), then it would leave the door open to use whatever tax rate to make the link between income and child support. However, I feel my argument is a bit stronger because both numbers are listed in the agreement, which shows what tax rate was intended to be implied: the Canadian one, regardless where I live. Or am I grasping at straws? I need help seeing this more clearly.
- My ex accepted my payments for a couple of years without protesting, and she only filed for divorce and claimed that I underpaid, after I stopped working. So my main question is how long can someone wait before claiming CS retroactively? After about one year, my ex sent me an email reminding me that I needed to adjust for inflation because one year had elapsed, and she asked me when I intended to make this adjustment. So when I want to show intent, the point I would bring up is this: does her behavior not show that there was meeting of the minds about there being no tax adjustment if she worried about something as small as 2% change due to inflation, rather than claiming that I was incorrectly not using a tax adjustment? And why did she wait for more than two years to claim retroactive CS? Both of us followed the agreement without any hiccups for a long time after signing. I am assuming that accepting the payments for XXX length of time shows intent, but I have no idea what XXX is. One year? Two years? Ten years?
Thanks to all for your help and feedback, it is greatly appreciated.