properties and equalization

Spouse A has property *A in her name, mat home.
Spouse B has property *B in his name, overseas property.

A month after separation Spouse A did a valuation on *A.
Spouse A asked Spouse B for valuation on *B as part of disclosure. He lowballs the value and gives no proof (appraisal). We found out through internet research that he was off by $50k. That was 3 years ago.

Both properties have risen in value since separation. *B has almost doubled. 3 years have passed since separation and Spouse A is still looking for disclosure from Spouse B. Going to court soon over this.

My question is about equalization. What value will be used in the equalization calculation on both these properties when it comes time to do an equalization calculation? Separation date values or today?

Tx.
 
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What value will be used in the equalization calculation on both these properties when it comes time to do an equalization calculation? Separation date values or today?

Tx.

The date of separation would be the date for equalization unless your g/f continued to contribute to the cost (ie. mortgage) of the overseas property.
 
The date of separation would be the date for equalization unless your g/f continued to contribute to the cost (ie. mortgage) of the overseas property.

Yes, she is paying all costs for both properties (plus some other joint properties) with no contributions from him since separation. How do the values get entered in this case?
 
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I see I've already asked this question and already got it answered in another thread. Sorry about that. Lots of issues in this case that cause my head to spin sometimes.
 
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