I have been theorizing on this issue and in Quebec I can see a jurisprudential logic to imputing income based on the SPOUSE'S income.
For example: let's say ex-wife remarries a doctor and becomes a SAHM. She is now being supported by her husband who makes 300k/yr.
In other cases if a privileged son is supported his son the judges have used that 3rd party support as income and I see no reason why the same logic can't be applied to a spouse. I would even argue that it should be 50% of the spouse's revenue if the parent is purposefully unememployed and perform household duties (i:e: a partner in the economic union of marriage)
I'd have no problem with assessing the "total family income" in determining SS. My ex puts most of his income through his g/f. Not a damn thing I can do about it. It's so blatant. She never worked a day in her life but now shows substantial income. Crooks.
Only time they look at total family income is when a person files a motion claiming 'undue hardship' as far as I know.
I wonder if the same logic can be applied to spousal support: if spousal support is up for review, can an ex-spouse's new common law relationship be used to establish household income, and therefore be used to reduce the SS I pay? I am in a situation where I essentially pay my ex's rent. She now benefits from having her new common law spouse living with her and even working out of the house. His "silent" contribution to the household income/rent/etc. should have an impact on SS in my view. I'm not opposed to her re-partnering, but I am opposed to having to support him indirectly, while she conveniently stays out of the work force. Thoughts?
I wonder if there's some way to have his half of the rent and household expenses credited to her as her 'income.'
Sort of like if she was renting a room out.
if he has only lived there for 9 months I don't think they are legally considered common law yet. When you say he partial rents out his house does that mean he still uses it as his residence also...maintains a bedroom there or whatever? I think you may be out of luck on this one. She can just say he stays overnight a lot but doesn't live there on a permanent basis. If he gets mail delivered there then that would be proof that he considers it his residence.
It may affect SS but shouldn't affect CS.
Is your SS compensatory (i.e: long marriage) or non-compensatory?