How about this situation. While separated with or without an agreement finalized (with an agreement there would be a divorce date) let's say one of us comes into an inheretance. My understanding is that this value must be dealt with; the spouce gets half I think. Is this correct?
Also, should one of us inhereit after a divorce is final, what then? Can either one of us look to adjustments if the other is paying CS and/or SS? (Right now in our discussions we would forgo these to make the split as amicable as possible which would affect the above question very differently I imagine. Still, things happen...).
Thx K
Also, should one of us inhereit after a divorce is final, what then? Can either one of us look to adjustments if the other is paying CS and/or SS? (Right now in our discussions we would forgo these to make the split as amicable as possible which would affect the above question very differently I imagine. Still, things happen...).
Thx K