I am trying to understand the theoretical basis for why family allocations are not DEDUCTED from child support.
In a full family ppl spend on kids then ppl get govt money - is it "added" to what they spend on kids or "deducted" from what they spend on kids?
Because child support is meant to theoretically support the children so if children have need X.
CP receives amount Y from 3rd party (because they have children)
then shouldn't it be
X - Y = Z
I know it isn't like that but I'm trying to understand the rational or is it already accounted for....?
Because child support is meant to theoretically support the children so if children have need X.
CP receives amount Y from 3rd party (because they have children)
then shouldn't it be
X - Y = Z
I know it isn't like that but I'm trying to understand the rational or is it already accounted for....?
-CTC is generated because you have a child and modified based on your income.
-Everybody agrees that both parents should support the needs/expenses of the children in proportion to their means.
-If the needs/expenses of your children are a fixed value (independent of whether you get CTC or not) then why should you get child support AND the allocations, it seems to be double accounting.
-At the end the parents will still pay child support AFTER accounting for govt benefits.
This isn't about "why should my ex benefit etc..." It is about making sure that child support goes to the children and not drained from one adult's pocket to the other.
I need to read up on the creation of the tables, there already major flaws I know about, (Equivalence tables for example) and percent of income dedicated to children as income increases.
I mean on more philosophical level - what is the basis of child support?
It is money paid by a parent to another parent to pay for the expenses of their joint child.
IF the expenses is ALREADY paid for OR the expenses doesn't exist then there is no need for child support.
In reality...CTTB should be calculated based on income and CS.
Like you said MSMom, you would not get the credit before...in fact you where getting it by having 2 incomes to support the child/ren.
CS is in support of the children to equalize the standard of living and that should be reflected by add CS in calculations for CTTB.
If the gov wanted to save money it would be a way to go and a real reflection of reality.
I would think that would be fair. But as CS isn't taxable it isn't included as income when filing taxes. You also have the whole issue of CS "not paid"....complicates the taxes even further as it's often two different taxation years in consideration.
There's also the further complication of additional members in the family. My CCTB went down drastically when I married as CCTB is based on household income, not just the custodial parent's income. That would make doing offset CCTB even more difficult.
Yes, it would be very complicated......not sure how things can be done when there are payees and recipients that are dead beats on both sides.
I get what the op is saying...then how about it being consider in the calculations of section 7? Even in 50/50 it would apply.
I know some are not going to like my point of view on this but that why this is an open forums.
CTTB is like child support, there for the child in question.
You know the more i read regarding social assitance and support payment I See there is a clear prioritization.
Minimize the cost to the government
Maximize the money transferred from NCP --> CP
Maximize the expense to NCP vs the CP
When calculating welfare, for a CS recipient they DEDUCT the CS received from the welfare they'd collect. They consider the CS income for the mother which is really the opposite of what is in family law...