I have small business that I had before I got married. I'm currently in the process of getting a business and income valuation done for my divorce.
My question is that if the business valuation comes in lower on the date of separation then on the date of marriage - can I deduct that same amount on the money that I have to pay my wife for the equalization for the house, investments, etc ?
My lawyer says no, but I'm unclear if this correct and if so why it that way ?
For example if the business valuation came in higher I would have to pay my wife, why doesn't it work the other way around ?
DU
My question is that if the business valuation comes in lower on the date of separation then on the date of marriage - can I deduct that same amount on the money that I have to pay my wife for the equalization for the house, investments, etc ?
My lawyer says no, but I'm unclear if this correct and if so why it that way ?
For example if the business valuation came in higher I would have to pay my wife, why doesn't it work the other way around ?
DU