I have included the following clause in my offer to settlement "if both parties agree in writing, the applicant can take upto 2 weeks vacation without the child and the respondent is responsible for childcare"
In their OTS they have included the following "If both parties consent , the applicant can take upto 2 weeks vacation without the child and the respondent is responsible for childcare"
Is there a difference between the 2 and what could be the repercussions to agreeing to "consent" as opposed to "both parties agree in writing" ?
In their OTS they have included the following "If both parties consent , the applicant can take upto 2 weeks vacation without the child and the respondent is responsible for childcare"
Is there a difference between the 2 and what could be the repercussions to agreeing to "consent" as opposed to "both parties agree in writing" ?
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