Hi again group...
Thanks for all the good answers thus far. You are all very helpful!
BACKGROUND:
I owned my home (mortgage free) before I married. I sold this home WHILE married and purchased a much cheaper home (about half the price). We have been married for three years.
My quandry is this: A lawyer I am considering using (I am "interviewing" a few with great reputations in our community) states that because I have all the receipts and paid all the bills (telephone, taxes, cable, hydro, improvements such as fences, hot tub, patio, garden shrubs etc) from MY account, I can prove that my wife is NOT entitled to:
a) any of the value of the improvements and
b) that she is NOT enttiled to half the house as it is appearant that I have taken care of all the financial responsibilities from my account although she works.
She makes decent money, but has debt from her first marriage and really hasn't been able to afford to make a financial contribution to the home. In fairness, I accepted this and she has done physical work around the home.
Is this a "loop hole" to the figuring out the equalization payments, or is it an argument that holds real water. Again, in fairness to the lawyer, I asked him what COULD be done....not if I would win.
Lastly.....are there ANY exceptions to the idea that once married the home lived in is jointly owned 50/50?
In advance, thank you for your help!
Thanks for all the good answers thus far. You are all very helpful!
BACKGROUND:
I owned my home (mortgage free) before I married. I sold this home WHILE married and purchased a much cheaper home (about half the price). We have been married for three years.
My quandry is this: A lawyer I am considering using (I am "interviewing" a few with great reputations in our community) states that because I have all the receipts and paid all the bills (telephone, taxes, cable, hydro, improvements such as fences, hot tub, patio, garden shrubs etc) from MY account, I can prove that my wife is NOT entitled to:
a) any of the value of the improvements and
b) that she is NOT enttiled to half the house as it is appearant that I have taken care of all the financial responsibilities from my account although she works.
She makes decent money, but has debt from her first marriage and really hasn't been able to afford to make a financial contribution to the home. In fairness, I accepted this and she has done physical work around the home.
Is this a "loop hole" to the figuring out the equalization payments, or is it an argument that holds real water. Again, in fairness to the lawyer, I asked him what COULD be done....not if I would win.
Lastly.....are there ANY exceptions to the idea that once married the home lived in is jointly owned 50/50?
In advance, thank you for your help!
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