I just read a case on Canlii that I found really interesting (me being a family law layman and all), in particular paragraphs 13-15:
CanLII - 2012 ONSC 5339 (CanLII)
It makes me wonder then, if two individuals agreed that the support payor would obtain an insurance policy of X amount and designate the recipient as an irrevocable beneficiary, and have that agreement issued as a court order, would the payor then be able to claim that the court does not have the jurisdiction to issue such an order, just like the above case? Or would it be a different matter if the court made such an order based on the consent of both parties?
CanLII - 2012 ONSC 5339 (CanLII)
It makes me wonder then, if two individuals agreed that the support payor would obtain an insurance policy of X amount and designate the recipient as an irrevocable beneficiary, and have that agreement issued as a court order, would the payor then be able to claim that the court does not have the jurisdiction to issue such an order, just like the above case? Or would it be a different matter if the court made such an order based on the consent of both parties?
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