Hi folks,
This is my first post, and I'd appreciate very much any advice/feedback on the following.
-Married on 1999
-Separated on 2008
-As of today, not divorced yet
-We jointly bought a house on 2007
-the house value on 2007 was $430k
-Mortgage on the house was $260k
-From the separation date (2008) up to now I paid all house bills (utilities, property tax, home insurance, etc) and all the mortgage
-The wife paid nothing at all
-Both wife and I stayed at the matrimonial home (different quarters). She did not move out of the house all this time, and we still both live in the house now.
I understand that we share the equity in the house(minus mortgage) on the separation date (2008), but since the wife did not contribute at all in paying off the mortgage and other costs after the separation date (2008), can I assume that she cannot share the increase in value of the home post 2008, on the grounds of the principles of equity or "unjust enrichment"?
I would appreciate very much any feedback on this. Thank you all.
This is my first post, and I'd appreciate very much any advice/feedback on the following.
-Married on 1999
-Separated on 2008
-As of today, not divorced yet
-We jointly bought a house on 2007
-the house value on 2007 was $430k
-Mortgage on the house was $260k
-From the separation date (2008) up to now I paid all house bills (utilities, property tax, home insurance, etc) and all the mortgage
-The wife paid nothing at all
-Both wife and I stayed at the matrimonial home (different quarters). She did not move out of the house all this time, and we still both live in the house now.
I understand that we share the equity in the house(minus mortgage) on the separation date (2008), but since the wife did not contribute at all in paying off the mortgage and other costs after the separation date (2008), can I assume that she cannot share the increase in value of the home post 2008, on the grounds of the principles of equity or "unjust enrichment"?
I would appreciate very much any feedback on this. Thank you all.
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