Here's a situation for ya'll. A woman sells her house and puts all the $ down on a new one with her common law (yes over 3 years together) partner. He puts down nothing but since he fixed up the old house and enabled her to get more $ upon the sale, feels that is his contribution. SHE agrees..I guess.
2 years after living in the house, shopping on credit cards (which are in her name due to his lack of credit)to furnish the place,
The guy gets a rental and proceeds to help himself to whatever he wants in the house while she is at work. This happens for 2 days.
HE now claims that since SHE changed the locks, HE is not required to pay on the mortgage (his name is on the deed - silly woman) but still is entitled to 50% upon the sale of the house.
HE claims this was told to him by a lawyer....I don't believe it?
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