Situation: the OP secured a court date (motion) without first asking for my consent. I had made plans for this date, and will be out of town.
Question: is not the onus on the OP to first ask consent to ensure availability of both sides to attend court?
Aside: at the last court appearance, I requested leave from the court to vary a previous order (2018), and was granted this order in the recent endorsement.
I had asked the Other Party for their availability (3 times) for court in December, though received no response.
Instead, I received materials from the OP seeking a motion date ?
Question: is not the onus on the OP to first ask consent to ensure availability of both sides to attend court?
Aside: at the last court appearance, I requested leave from the court to vary a previous order (2018), and was granted this order in the recent endorsement.
I had asked the Other Party for their availability (3 times) for court in December, though received no response.
Instead, I received materials from the OP seeking a motion date ?
Comment