My ex has a VERY large pension - how large I don't even know just yet as he was ordered to have it valuated but has not yet provided the info.
We did not own a home and had a substantial amount of debt, but even if he took ALL the debt he would owe me an equalization of somewhere in the realm of $25K. Obviously he doesn't have this. HOWEVER, he has since remarried (we handled the divorce separate from the rest so that he could remarry) and his new wife owns a home which supposedly has a lot of equity in it. Am I right to assume that the house - as a matrimonial home is now 50% his and as a result he might be ordered to mortgage it to come up with his payment?
It's just a question - I don't really want them to have to do that. But he is being uncooperative in other issues. I'm just curious as to how I would ever be able to get anything from him. If this gives me any leverage at all.
We did not own a home and had a substantial amount of debt, but even if he took ALL the debt he would owe me an equalization of somewhere in the realm of $25K. Obviously he doesn't have this. HOWEVER, he has since remarried (we handled the divorce separate from the rest so that he could remarry) and his new wife owns a home which supposedly has a lot of equity in it. Am I right to assume that the house - as a matrimonial home is now 50% his and as a result he might be ordered to mortgage it to come up with his payment?
It's just a question - I don't really want them to have to do that. But he is being uncooperative in other issues. I'm just curious as to how I would ever be able to get anything from him. If this gives me any leverage at all.
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