Did anyone have a precedent like this:
Separated over 2 years ago, moved out, matrimonial home was sold and divided. No economic and or interdependent relationship existed during that time. My ex-spouse didn't pay child support and didn't see his daughter, at all. I have pension account funded by my employer where I also make some contributions. Are there are any cases that he spouses get post-separation property divided equally at the date of negotiation vs date of separation? All of my post-separation assets were funded by me and my employer solely. I read some cases where the court awarded division at the time of separation, given the circumstances sited above, but what is the reality like? Anyone went through similar experience?
Separated over 2 years ago, moved out, matrimonial home was sold and divided. No economic and or interdependent relationship existed during that time. My ex-spouse didn't pay child support and didn't see his daughter, at all. I have pension account funded by my employer where I also make some contributions. Are there are any cases that he spouses get post-separation property divided equally at the date of negotiation vs date of separation? All of my post-separation assets were funded by me and my employer solely. I read some cases where the court awarded division at the time of separation, given the circumstances sited above, but what is the reality like? Anyone went through similar experience?
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