Originally posted by Fair4All
Indeed they determine the appreciation, BUT they also subtract the mortgage. She is after all responsible for half the mortgage. Using your example, say the appreciation is $50,000, but you still owe $80,000 on the mortgage.
Then they would take the $50,000 - $80,000 = -$30,000 (of debt) and her share of the debt is $15,000.
If the mortgage is less than the appreciation, then she would be entitled to half of what was left. Appreciation is $75,000 - $50,000 mortgage = $25, 000 asset and she is entitled to $12,500. These scenarios are both under the assumption they both contributed equally to the purchase of the home and hold equal equity to the same.
Some forget that sure both are entitled to assets, but both are also responsible for half the debts. They incurred the assets together, and they incurred the debts together, and one should not get off scot free on the debt side.
Originally posted by Fair4All
I'm just offering another point of view to ponder.
FL
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