Ex has claimed Nortel shares (for which she had no documentation -yet claimed she had 35K - and are now worth nothing) she owned on the date of marriage are a pre-marital asset that were destined to be her retirement fund.
She was allowed (by our Arbitrator to put those as a pre-marital asset - however in the same breath the Arbitrator indicated that I could not include my gov't pension accrued to that date as a pre-marital asset.
I'm trying to understand the difference as both myself and my lawyer are confounded by the decision.
I have searched the forums for a similar topic but can't seem to find one.
Anyone?
She was allowed (by our Arbitrator to put those as a pre-marital asset - however in the same breath the Arbitrator indicated that I could not include my gov't pension accrued to that date as a pre-marital asset.
I'm trying to understand the difference as both myself and my lawyer are confounded by the decision.
I have searched the forums for a similar topic but can't seem to find one.
Anyone?
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