What bothers me is that LF claims to have psych education but utilizes references that he finds 'most impressive' that are over 20 years old.
I would be more likely to have a conversation on relevant, current information. Soooo much has changed in 20 years. Perhaps there is no current research on parent alienation as it has been determined not to be a prevalent problem?
Please show me statistics from 2014. Perhaps when all you have is a hammer, every thing looks like a nail?
Additionally, in his very first post in this thread, he uses an example that is outdated and mother bashing. I don't care if he gave preamble. A professional would not use outdated biased research and simply ask people to relabel it to suit themselves.
At the very bottom of the very link he posts, Dr. Turkat acknowledges that the original research was ONLY done with mothers. How baised is that? When they finally got around to looking at fathers, they realized the topic was gender neutral. LF may say "Oh, yes. I said that!" but still posted the old, mother bashing info. Did he not read to the bottom of his own info? I did.
At the bottom of the link LF posted is this more current definition of parent alienation that is, in fact, gender neutral. Why didn't he use that? Here it is.
I would be more likely to have a conversation on relevant, current information. Soooo much has changed in 20 years. Perhaps there is no current research on parent alienation as it has been determined not to be a prevalent problem?
Please show me statistics from 2014. Perhaps when all you have is a hammer, every thing looks like a nail?
Additionally, in his very first post in this thread, he uses an example that is outdated and mother bashing. I don't care if he gave preamble. A professional would not use outdated biased research and simply ask people to relabel it to suit themselves.
At the very bottom of the very link he posts, Dr. Turkat acknowledges that the original research was ONLY done with mothers. How baised is that? When they finally got around to looking at fathers, they realized the topic was gender neutral. LF may say "Oh, yes. I said that!" but still posted the old, mother bashing info. Did he not read to the bottom of his own info? I did.
At the bottom of the link LF posted is this more current definition of parent alienation that is, in fact, gender neutral. Why didn't he use that? Here it is.
Table I. Diagnostic Criteria for Divorce-Related Malicious Parent Syndrome
A parent who unjustifiably punishes his or her divorcing or divorced spouse by:
· Attempting to alienate their mutual child(ren) from the other parent
· Involving others in malicious actions against the other parent
· Engaging in excessive litigation
The parent specifically attempts to deny the child(ren):
· Regular uninterrupted visitation with the other parent
· Uninhibited telephone access to the other parent
· Participation by the other parent in the child(ren)'s school life and extra-curricular activities
The pattern is pervasive and includes malicious acts towards the other parent including:
· Lying to the children
· Lying to others
· Violations of law
The disorder is not specifically due to another mental disorder, although a separate mental disorder may co-exist.
A parent who unjustifiably punishes his or her divorcing or divorced spouse by:
· Attempting to alienate their mutual child(ren) from the other parent
· Involving others in malicious actions against the other parent
· Engaging in excessive litigation
The parent specifically attempts to deny the child(ren):
· Regular uninterrupted visitation with the other parent
· Uninhibited telephone access to the other parent
· Participation by the other parent in the child(ren)'s school life and extra-curricular activities
The pattern is pervasive and includes malicious acts towards the other parent including:
· Lying to the children
· Lying to others
· Violations of law
The disorder is not specifically due to another mental disorder, although a separate mental disorder may co-exist.
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