Hi... first, thanks everyone for all the help through this nonsense.
I've got yet another question and appreciate any opinions...
On our date of marriage, stbx had a property previously acquired through inheritance. The surviving parent had a financial contingent interest in the property, and there is a specific clause in the will that the property could not be sold without the surviving parents explict permission.
Question is... can stbx claim this as a premarital asset (minus the contingent interest portion of course)?
I mean, the surviving parent seems to have full controlling interest in the property (even though its in stbx's name)... so how can stbx list this as a premarital asset?
I've got yet another question and appreciate any opinions...
On our date of marriage, stbx had a property previously acquired through inheritance. The surviving parent had a financial contingent interest in the property, and there is a specific clause in the will that the property could not be sold without the surviving parents explict permission.
Question is... can stbx claim this as a premarital asset (minus the contingent interest portion of course)?
I mean, the surviving parent seems to have full controlling interest in the property (even though its in stbx's name)... so how can stbx list this as a premarital asset?
Comment