My ex went back to her maiden name in 2015. (requested I write all cheques in that last name)
Now She just forwarded me proof of a receipt for section 7 purposes.
The receipt shows that she paid with a master card in my last name.
Is she obligated to inform the credit card companies of her name change?
I also checked my credit report and saw that there was a JOINT credit card that went to collections. I never knew anything about this card, never had it in my possession. Apparently it was opened in 2006-07 and active until 2012. (I have never been contacted by any collection agencies regarding it-----I believe the ex paid it off after being contacted by collection agency herself)------but it affects my credit negatively because she wasn't paying it properly/it went to collections. (She should have never had it in the first place/as I didn't know about it....nor should have she been using it until 2012!)
We separated/had separation agreement signed in 2009. That agreement stated that she was solely responsible for any joint debt. It stated that we would not pledge the others credit. If one of us became liable for the debt, the party who assumed the debt would fully indemnify the other.
Obviously there is no money owing for it anymore. So I am not having to pay towards it/ there is no dollar amount for her to reimburse me in that regard. But she's affecting my credit?
Can something like this even be rectified? Do I contact the credit bureau?
Now She just forwarded me proof of a receipt for section 7 purposes.
The receipt shows that she paid with a master card in my last name.
Is she obligated to inform the credit card companies of her name change?
I also checked my credit report and saw that there was a JOINT credit card that went to collections. I never knew anything about this card, never had it in my possession. Apparently it was opened in 2006-07 and active until 2012. (I have never been contacted by any collection agencies regarding it-----I believe the ex paid it off after being contacted by collection agency herself)------but it affects my credit negatively because she wasn't paying it properly/it went to collections. (She should have never had it in the first place/as I didn't know about it....nor should have she been using it until 2012!)
We separated/had separation agreement signed in 2009. That agreement stated that she was solely responsible for any joint debt. It stated that we would not pledge the others credit. If one of us became liable for the debt, the party who assumed the debt would fully indemnify the other.
Obviously there is no money owing for it anymore. So I am not having to pay towards it/ there is no dollar amount for her to reimburse me in that regard. But she's affecting my credit?
Can something like this even be rectified? Do I contact the credit bureau?
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