I have an odd question, but it's really trying to understand the courts perspective.
I know that a parent who is re-married can go after the non-biological (Step) parent for child support, provided that the step-parent treated the child as a child of the marriage.
Given this, why wouldn't household income come into play when both parent's are re-married and household incomes would be similar?
In my case, the household incomes are similar, however I pay a hefty offset because only our respective incomes are considered and we are both treated as a single parent, when that's not a very realistic financial picture. As well, I would have to prove undue hardship to consider household income. Just looking for what is fair.
I know that a parent who is re-married can go after the non-biological (Step) parent for child support, provided that the step-parent treated the child as a child of the marriage.
Given this, why wouldn't household income come into play when both parent's are re-married and household incomes would be similar?
In my case, the household incomes are similar, however I pay a hefty offset because only our respective incomes are considered and we are both treated as a single parent, when that's not a very realistic financial picture. As well, I would have to prove undue hardship to consider household income. Just looking for what is fair.
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