Asking for a friend:
1 - A house is purchased after getting married and one party puts in 50k (money they had prior to marriage). The house is sold 3 years later at a profit of 100k. At the end of the day does party A actually get back their 50k because it wasn't part of a matrimonial home at the TIME of marriage but instead was part of their NFP? (i.e: they evade the - "you got screwed by the 50/50 split of mat home")
2 - If the parties decide to sell the home and are living apart but still have an on and off relationship as part of a divorce such that it could be argued the sale of the matrimonial home happened before the valuation date would that exclude the home as "matrimonial home" since it was sold before the separation was done.
I'm not entirely sure, so I figured collective wisdom would be better here.
1 - A house is purchased after getting married and one party puts in 50k (money they had prior to marriage). The house is sold 3 years later at a profit of 100k. At the end of the day does party A actually get back their 50k because it wasn't part of a matrimonial home at the TIME of marriage but instead was part of their NFP? (i.e: they evade the - "you got screwed by the 50/50 split of mat home")
2 - If the parties decide to sell the home and are living apart but still have an on and off relationship as part of a divorce such that it could be argued the sale of the matrimonial home happened before the valuation date would that exclude the home as "matrimonial home" since it was sold before the separation was done.
I'm not entirely sure, so I figured collective wisdom would be better here.
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