I have been the 'payee' (he) for 10 years. The 'payor' (she) signed a consent agreement recently (Sept/05) giving 'him' full custody of the two children. The two children were registered in another location to their respective schools for a total of five months. On a regular interval visit with 'her', she decides to keep the two children with her and register them to their former schools. I (he) immediately opposed this action and involved the local police. They went to her door and she starts waiving the court order (issued in 1997).
Does she have the right to have her cake and eat it too?
Is SHE actually in contempt of the original order?( since she was given SOLE custody at that time and gives it to me now?)
Does legal consent SUPERCEDE a Court Order?
Please help, and................
Thank You.
Does she have the right to have her cake and eat it too?
Is SHE actually in contempt of the original order?( since she was given SOLE custody at that time and gives it to me now?)
Does legal consent SUPERCEDE a Court Order?
Please help, and................
Thank You.
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