a pretty good question here, maybe someone can help.
ive simplified the scenario to keep things basic and general.
If a single parent owns a home, then gets re-married,, family law dictates that the matrimonial home be subject to equilization with the premise that each spouse has 50% ownership. New spouse moving into the residence is entitiled to their share.
now what happens if the single parent who is now married, dies and leaves in a WILL that the house shall be sold and proceeds go to their two children.
What supercedes each other? family law pertaining to matrimonial property or deceased's person's will. ??
ive simplified the scenario to keep things basic and general.
If a single parent owns a home, then gets re-married,, family law dictates that the matrimonial home be subject to equilization with the premise that each spouse has 50% ownership. New spouse moving into the residence is entitiled to their share.
now what happens if the single parent who is now married, dies and leaves in a WILL that the house shall be sold and proceeds go to their two children.
What supercedes each other? family law pertaining to matrimonial property or deceased's person's will. ??
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