Here's one question. We both want the home to be sold. I obviously would like to sell privately. Can a judge order that a real estate agent be used?
I guess a judge could, if the parties disagree and there is evidence that it would be difficult to sell in private, but if there's no evidence that it could not be done privately, would a judge order such a thing?
I guess a judge could, if the parties disagree and there is evidence that it would be difficult to sell in private, but if there's no evidence that it could not be done privately, would a judge order such a thing?
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