Hello all,
I'm currently separated, living under the same roof as the spouse, not giving up custody of our child, or equity. We have to wait six months before we go to Trial Management Conference and/or Settlement conference.
Before marriage, my wife owned a home with her mother and sister. I moved in with her in this house for 3 months before marriage, then lived there for about six months after marriage until they sold it. My son was also born in this house. My wife's mother and sister lived in the same house through that time.
Is this home considered a matrimonial home? In my financial disclosure documents, I did not include any of the value of this asset under my data because my name was not on the title, but I think I should have included it because it appears to meet the definition of "matrimonial home".
Thus, what I am asking is, because I lived in this house, I got married in it, and my son was born there, although my wife owned it before marriage, is the value of this asset (my wife's share) half mine? Should my wife's share of the value of this house (including "my half" if applicable) be considered family property, or should it be considered equity before marriage, hers alone?
I'm currently separated, living under the same roof as the spouse, not giving up custody of our child, or equity. We have to wait six months before we go to Trial Management Conference and/or Settlement conference.
Before marriage, my wife owned a home with her mother and sister. I moved in with her in this house for 3 months before marriage, then lived there for about six months after marriage until they sold it. My son was also born in this house. My wife's mother and sister lived in the same house through that time.
Is this home considered a matrimonial home? In my financial disclosure documents, I did not include any of the value of this asset under my data because my name was not on the title, but I think I should have included it because it appears to meet the definition of "matrimonial home".
Thus, what I am asking is, because I lived in this house, I got married in it, and my son was born there, although my wife owned it before marriage, is the value of this asset (my wife's share) half mine? Should my wife's share of the value of this house (including "my half" if applicable) be considered family property, or should it be considered equity before marriage, hers alone?
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