My husband and I separated in Feb /08. He stayed in our house - was supposed to buy me out in June /08. I am now in the process of taking him to court to get the house sold, etc as he reneged on our agreement pre-separation. I have been paying down the debts we accumulated, and he has been paying the mortgage on the house.
Because our separation date was almost 18 months ago, I'm not sure how this will all work out - I had to provide the value of assets and liabilities on the separation date, and then the value of all on the date I filed our court papers. He has not responded, and now I need to do an affadavit and refile papers, so I need to provide new current balances on the debts.
My question is this - when the house is sold and the liabilities are subtracted from the assets, is any extra credit given to the party who has been paying things down, post separation? Would I owe my ex 50% of what he has been paying on the mortgage? And would he then owe me 50% of what I have paid toward our debts?, Then all remaining liabilities subtracted from the assets and split? I'm sorry - my question is not very clear - hopefully someone can figure out what I'm trying to ask!
One last question - I have a person in my life who is talking co-habitating / marriage - I have heard that his income would then be considered as well as mine, for the calculation of child support I have to pay my ex-husband - is that correct?
Thank you for any & all help - it's appreciated.
Because our separation date was almost 18 months ago, I'm not sure how this will all work out - I had to provide the value of assets and liabilities on the separation date, and then the value of all on the date I filed our court papers. He has not responded, and now I need to do an affadavit and refile papers, so I need to provide new current balances on the debts.
My question is this - when the house is sold and the liabilities are subtracted from the assets, is any extra credit given to the party who has been paying things down, post separation? Would I owe my ex 50% of what he has been paying on the mortgage? And would he then owe me 50% of what I have paid toward our debts?, Then all remaining liabilities subtracted from the assets and split? I'm sorry - my question is not very clear - hopefully someone can figure out what I'm trying to ask!
One last question - I have a person in my life who is talking co-habitating / marriage - I have heard that his income would then be considered as well as mine, for the calculation of child support I have to pay my ex-husband - is that correct?
Thank you for any & all help - it's appreciated.
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