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    I am feeling pretty, frustrated. I was told sale of house would be determend as of separation date , my lawyer has said if it's done that way. I will pay a renters fee. I have been paying the mortgage on my own for the past 15 months. Deed is in his and monster-in-laws name but she is not claiming equ.

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    Originally posted by bern View Post
    I am feeling pretty, frustrated. I was told sale of house would be determend as of separation date , my lawyer has said if it's done that way. I will pay a renters fee. I have been paying the mortgage on my own for the past 15 months. Deed is in his and monster-in-laws name but she is not claiming equ.
    I would consult with another solicitor. Occupation rent is rare in decisions. By definition it is only awarded when one spouse is forced out of the home. If you didn't force your spouse out then there really is no reason as the asset is protected and it is going to be sold. It should be (in my opinion) a matter of equalization.

    Also, if your spouse claims occupational rent then claim the mortgage payments on the value of the home and it equalizes out. Don't agree to occupancy rent without a court order I say. Especially if your spouse vacated the home.

    Good Luck!

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