Hi. Hoping someone has an answer on this.
Some background:
My ex and I lived together for 10 years. We have two children together.
In January of 2008, we decided to purchase a home which was only in my name. In February, 2008, he decided we were done - however, the paperwork on the home had already been finalized.
We lived in the same house until May 2008 when I took possession of the house. He remained in the rented house until July.
In April of 2008 he instructed me to no longer access his pay (which went into a joint account) which I complied with. However, he did not pay any of the bills other than groceries once (approx $140) and childcare once ($300 - one week's worth) for the remaining 2 months we lived together.
Before I moved out I gave him $2500 in cash which he requested from the down payment money for the purchase of the home so that he could buy a new vehicle (which I co-signed for) and for first and last on an apartment. I complied as half the down payment money was rightfully his anyway.
I have a few questions:
1. Because we were common law and not married - was I obligated to pay all the bills OR once he separated our finances (by requesting I don't touch his money) was he responsible for his portion of the bills?
2. What would the courts recognize as our separation date?
3. I owe him for the down payment on the home - would the courts recognize the $2500 as partial payment of what I owed or will it be ignored as it would be if we were married?
Thanks for any insight.
Some background:
My ex and I lived together for 10 years. We have two children together.
In January of 2008, we decided to purchase a home which was only in my name. In February, 2008, he decided we were done - however, the paperwork on the home had already been finalized.
We lived in the same house until May 2008 when I took possession of the house. He remained in the rented house until July.
In April of 2008 he instructed me to no longer access his pay (which went into a joint account) which I complied with. However, he did not pay any of the bills other than groceries once (approx $140) and childcare once ($300 - one week's worth) for the remaining 2 months we lived together.
Before I moved out I gave him $2500 in cash which he requested from the down payment money for the purchase of the home so that he could buy a new vehicle (which I co-signed for) and for first and last on an apartment. I complied as half the down payment money was rightfully his anyway.
I have a few questions:
1. Because we were common law and not married - was I obligated to pay all the bills OR once he separated our finances (by requesting I don't touch his money) was he responsible for his portion of the bills?
2. What would the courts recognize as our separation date?
3. I owe him for the down payment on the home - would the courts recognize the $2500 as partial payment of what I owed or will it be ignored as it would be if we were married?
Thanks for any insight.
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