Wondering if anyone has experienced something similar.
Say the Payor's salary has been in the $50k range for a decade and then has been laid off at the end of the year and in that last year got a lump sum severance of $40k, making it $90 k for that year as per income tax filing. The following year has been unemployed, but searching, but nothing had been found and is on EI for about $10k.
Now, calculating on a year to year basis, turns out Payor has been overpaying CS for the decade before. But the year of the $90k calculates as owing $10k in CS. Does that make sense or would a judge rule that the year of severance should be calculated like the previous years(3 year rule?) and the severance be added to the unemployed year(which is what the severance is supposed to be for)? Hope the question makes sense.
Say the Payor's salary has been in the $50k range for a decade and then has been laid off at the end of the year and in that last year got a lump sum severance of $40k, making it $90 k for that year as per income tax filing. The following year has been unemployed, but searching, but nothing had been found and is on EI for about $10k.
Now, calculating on a year to year basis, turns out Payor has been overpaying CS for the decade before. But the year of the $90k calculates as owing $10k in CS. Does that make sense or would a judge rule that the year of severance should be calculated like the previous years(3 year rule?) and the severance be added to the unemployed year(which is what the severance is supposed to be for)? Hope the question makes sense.
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