Recent threads have me thinking about my own situation:
I'm in a profession where we are able (and expected) to take a sabbatical one year out of every 6-8 years. During the sabbatical, salary is reduced by 10-20% for the year. It's not a vacation - we're expected to have a work plan and undertake study and independent projects which are relevant to our regular professional activities; the work plan has to be approved by the higher-ups before the sabbatical will be granted. However, we are released from regular duties during the year.
I'm starting sabbatical in the next few months. The impact on my income will appear on my 2015 and 2016 line 150s, as the sabbatical stretches across two calendar years. I have 50/50 parenting and pay offset, adjusted every year based on taxes. Our incomes are close, with less than 10% difference.
I had never thought about whether this could be considered intentional underemployment until now. It's intentional, in that I'm choosing to do something that will reduce my salary by 10-20% for one year, but I'm still fully employed, it's an expectation of my profession that we will use sabbaticals to enhance our careers, and I'm not doing this to avoid CS.
My ex is extremely argumentative and is always coming up with reasons why I should give him more money, none of which have ever worked. However, refuting them takes up time and energy. So I'm wondering:
1. Could he argue that I am intentionally reducing my income, because I could have refused to take the sabbatical?
2. Do I have an obligation to give him a heads-up and say "FYI my income in 2015 and 2016 is going to be down by about 5-10%, then it'll go back up"? Or would that be asking for trouble, and I should just continue sending my tax information as usual?
I'm in a profession where we are able (and expected) to take a sabbatical one year out of every 6-8 years. During the sabbatical, salary is reduced by 10-20% for the year. It's not a vacation - we're expected to have a work plan and undertake study and independent projects which are relevant to our regular professional activities; the work plan has to be approved by the higher-ups before the sabbatical will be granted. However, we are released from regular duties during the year.
I'm starting sabbatical in the next few months. The impact on my income will appear on my 2015 and 2016 line 150s, as the sabbatical stretches across two calendar years. I have 50/50 parenting and pay offset, adjusted every year based on taxes. Our incomes are close, with less than 10% difference.
I had never thought about whether this could be considered intentional underemployment until now. It's intentional, in that I'm choosing to do something that will reduce my salary by 10-20% for one year, but I'm still fully employed, it's an expectation of my profession that we will use sabbaticals to enhance our careers, and I'm not doing this to avoid CS.
My ex is extremely argumentative and is always coming up with reasons why I should give him more money, none of which have ever worked. However, refuting them takes up time and energy. So I'm wondering:
1. Could he argue that I am intentionally reducing my income, because I could have refused to take the sabbatical?
2. Do I have an obligation to give him a heads-up and say "FYI my income in 2015 and 2016 is going to be down by about 5-10%, then it'll go back up"? Or would that be asking for trouble, and I should just continue sending my tax information as usual?
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