Hello all,
This is my first post with this website. I have been reading for about a week now and feel comfortable that this is a safe and supportive forum for men and women suffering the ramification, personal, professional and financial, associated with divorce.....thank you all for being here!
My dilema is this: My wife and I married three years ago. We lived in a home that I owned (with no mortgage). We split up briefly (about one month) and during this time I tried to sell the home. I discovered I needed her signature, much to my dismay and surprise. We however, got back together prior to the sale, so this did not become an issue. We purchased a much cheaper house (about half the price of my first home) and she paid nothing toward it. I paid the entire price from the proceeds of my first home, including a number of repair and maintenance issues and upgrades (paint, flooring, drywall etc). We have since separated again and it looks like a divorce may be a strong possiblity. I did try to have her sign a "post" nuptiual agreement prior to our separation (which she agreed to initially), in an attempt to protect my assests, but she has since refused to sign.
Is she entitled to half of this second home? Additionally is she entitled to any of the money left over from the sale of the first home? I understand that after 5 years she would have been entitled to half without a doubt, but what about only 3 years?
Thanks in advance for your help!
This is my first post with this website. I have been reading for about a week now and feel comfortable that this is a safe and supportive forum for men and women suffering the ramification, personal, professional and financial, associated with divorce.....thank you all for being here!
My dilema is this: My wife and I married three years ago. We lived in a home that I owned (with no mortgage). We split up briefly (about one month) and during this time I tried to sell the home. I discovered I needed her signature, much to my dismay and surprise. We however, got back together prior to the sale, so this did not become an issue. We purchased a much cheaper house (about half the price of my first home) and she paid nothing toward it. I paid the entire price from the proceeds of my first home, including a number of repair and maintenance issues and upgrades (paint, flooring, drywall etc). We have since separated again and it looks like a divorce may be a strong possiblity. I did try to have her sign a "post" nuptiual agreement prior to our separation (which she agreed to initially), in an attempt to protect my assests, but she has since refused to sign.
Is she entitled to half of this second home? Additionally is she entitled to any of the money left over from the sale of the first home? I understand that after 5 years she would have been entitled to half without a doubt, but what about only 3 years?
Thanks in advance for your help!
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