My ex has retained all of our matrimonial debt. That much has been settled. I am currently seeking spousal support and apparently the debt that he retained is being taken into consideration as far as determining how much spousal support I will be awarded. He has said himself that he is not paying off the debt right now because he is unable to afford to do so as a result of his legal fees, and that when this is all said and done he will be able to begin paying on them.
How can this debt be taken into consideration if he isn't even paying on it? My lawyer had sent an email to his lawyer asking if he has paid them off, and/or if he is making payment...and has also asked to provide proof. She tells me that she got a reply from ex's lawyer saying that it's irrelevant what he's paying or if he ever pays, bottom line is that the debt is his, not mine. If he's not even paying on this debt, then how can it be taken into consideration? Who is right here?
How can this debt be taken into consideration if he isn't even paying on it? My lawyer had sent an email to his lawyer asking if he has paid them off, and/or if he is making payment...and has also asked to provide proof. She tells me that she got a reply from ex's lawyer saying that it's irrelevant what he's paying or if he ever pays, bottom line is that the debt is his, not mine. If he's not even paying on this debt, then how can it be taken into consideration? Who is right here?
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