Can a judge order you to pay retro CS without having a court order to do so, in the first place ?
Technically, if you have not broken the law. The court has not been defied.
If you park illegally, you have a parking ticket and if you don't pay it, the judge can order you to do so and increase / decrease the fine.
If you don't pay a bill, you might be sent to a collection agency etc etc.
I'm confused by the family law, as it makes no sense.
I understand when the court orders you to pay CS and if you don't, then you are really defying the court and the judge will slam you for that.
But if there is no court order in place, then how can the court judge on something you were not ordered to do.
Can someone explain this ?
Technically, if you have not broken the law. The court has not been defied.
If you park illegally, you have a parking ticket and if you don't pay it, the judge can order you to do so and increase / decrease the fine.
If you don't pay a bill, you might be sent to a collection agency etc etc.
I'm confused by the family law, as it makes no sense.
I understand when the court orders you to pay CS and if you don't, then you are really defying the court and the judge will slam you for that.
But if there is no court order in place, then how can the court judge on something you were not ordered to do.
Can someone explain this ?
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