Hi all,
Please bear with me for a moment, just want to make it clear how it works.
If there is no existing order or agreement, when a court orders a retroactive, prospective child support or both, the court always looks at the payers current income, is this correct? While arrears are something have been ordered and need to pay regardless of payers income, am I right?
Thanks
Please bear with me for a moment, just want to make it clear how it works.
If there is no existing order or agreement, when a court orders a retroactive, prospective child support or both, the court always looks at the payers current income, is this correct? While arrears are something have been ordered and need to pay regardless of payers income, am I right?
Thanks
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