I'm extremely confused right now, just hoping to get insight. Here is the background:
I brought a motion in December after ex wife refused to go with recommendations of children's lawyer.
I was successful in that motion, but costs were adjourned because wife didn't have counsel. (She fired them the month previous and claimed she couldn't find a new one)
Before we went back to court again I sent an offer to settle with various other things in it. I was notified the night before court that ex wife had agreed to all things except financials. So my lawyer went to court and the judge signed the motion. I did not attend because I was told I didn't have to.
Learn later that night from ex wife that she went to court an no one was there. I said we didn't have to go because an offer was agreed. She claims she knows nothing about this. I spoke to my lawyer that night and she said everything was fine, ex agreed yada yada.
I try to communicate with ex wife yesterday to find out if she made contact with her lawyer to find out what's happening because the new court order would change my access on the weekend and she didn't respond. Saw her at my child's dance this morning and she is ignoring my questions, and it is clear I'm not getting the children according to new court order today.
What could have happened? Could her lawyer have agreed to that without her knowledge? What if she agreed to it with her lawyer but now claims she didn't understand what she was agreeing to. (That would be a typical move on her part) is there a possible way this could have been my lawyers fault? Wouldn't my lawyer have needed something in writing from her lawyers to take to the courthouse to show the agreement between the parties? I don't imagine my lawyer could just show up and say we reached an agreement without proof?
Sorry this is so long! I just want to get to the bottom of this.
I brought a motion in December after ex wife refused to go with recommendations of children's lawyer.
I was successful in that motion, but costs were adjourned because wife didn't have counsel. (She fired them the month previous and claimed she couldn't find a new one)
Before we went back to court again I sent an offer to settle with various other things in it. I was notified the night before court that ex wife had agreed to all things except financials. So my lawyer went to court and the judge signed the motion. I did not attend because I was told I didn't have to.
Learn later that night from ex wife that she went to court an no one was there. I said we didn't have to go because an offer was agreed. She claims she knows nothing about this. I spoke to my lawyer that night and she said everything was fine, ex agreed yada yada.
I try to communicate with ex wife yesterday to find out if she made contact with her lawyer to find out what's happening because the new court order would change my access on the weekend and she didn't respond. Saw her at my child's dance this morning and she is ignoring my questions, and it is clear I'm not getting the children according to new court order today.
What could have happened? Could her lawyer have agreed to that without her knowledge? What if she agreed to it with her lawyer but now claims she didn't understand what she was agreeing to. (That would be a typical move on her part) is there a possible way this could have been my lawyers fault? Wouldn't my lawyer have needed something in writing from her lawyers to take to the courthouse to show the agreement between the parties? I don't imagine my lawyer could just show up and say we reached an agreement without proof?
Sorry this is so long! I just want to get to the bottom of this.
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