So I completed my NFP several months ago.
My stbx also completed her NFP and they are very similar. Off by a couple thousand dollars based on different appraised values of the house etc. I'm not to concerned about that.
So with all mutual assets 50/50 and disposition costs on the NFP she owes me $XX,XXX.XX.
Assuming the house gets sold she can afford this buyout without touching her pension. I offered for her to keep the house as a proposal which was rejected.
She wants to keep the house but does not want to touch her pension in order to buy me out. Which means she does not have enough cash to do it.
She told me that she is not negotiating and is planning on going to court as she said "No judge is going to kick me out of my house"
So my question is do judges ever not stick to an equalization payment as per the NFP because it's not in the best interest of the kids.
edit: A lot of missing information here and lots of assumptions, but just asking in general. If you need more details I'll see what I can do.
Thanks
My stbx also completed her NFP and they are very similar. Off by a couple thousand dollars based on different appraised values of the house etc. I'm not to concerned about that.
So with all mutual assets 50/50 and disposition costs on the NFP she owes me $XX,XXX.XX.
Assuming the house gets sold she can afford this buyout without touching her pension. I offered for her to keep the house as a proposal which was rejected.
She wants to keep the house but does not want to touch her pension in order to buy me out. Which means she does not have enough cash to do it.
She told me that she is not negotiating and is planning on going to court as she said "No judge is going to kick me out of my house"
So my question is do judges ever not stick to an equalization payment as per the NFP because it's not in the best interest of the kids.
edit: A lot of missing information here and lots of assumptions, but just asking in general. If you need more details I'll see what I can do.
Thanks
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