So it turns out....all those great renovations my ex did, and wrote about in all his affidavits as proof of "material change" and bragged about being part of his plan to provide a "permanent family home" - well, they were so he could SELL and move. Just found out his house is sold and he is building, which will likely result in the kids renting or living with grandparents while this occurs. Odd move in the middle of litigation, no? So I ask you all this....do you think this will hurt him in court? He's refusing to mediate and refused another offer to settle. Just wants trial, which is his right of course. But why would you boast about having a permanent home where you can provide much needed "consistency" and "stability" (all buzz words he's thrown in) and then sell it? This isn't really a question. More of a wtf statement. Thoughts anyone?
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Comment