Folks here commonly differentiate b/w who is on title and who is on the mortgage. I have yet to see a bank give a mortgage to a person who is not on title, otherwise they have no recourse. Conversely I have yet to see a person who is on title not be named on the mortgage. In my experience they go hand in hand.
Please correct me if I'm wrong, but I think there are a lot of misconceptions out there as to the mortgage and the title being mutually exclusive.
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